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The incredible worth of women and God's special calling on them

Still, other people try to claim that Priscilla was in authority over Apollos and taught him what the Word of God means, because of what the following verses say in Acts 18:24-26 below:

24 Now a Jew named Apollos, an Alexandrian by birth, an eloquent man, came to Ephesus; and he was mighty in the Scriptures.

25 This man had been instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in spirit, he was speaking and teaching accurately the things concerning Jesus, being acquainted only with the baptism of John;

26 and he began to speak out boldly in the synagogue. But when Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they took him aside and explained to him the way of God more accurately.

First of all, we must always look at what verses "say" and also what they "do not say". We can see that Apollos was eloquent, mighty in the Scriptures, he had a zeal or fervency to teach others, that he had been instructed in the way and accurately taught the things concerning Yeshua. BUT, he apparently was also only familiar with the baptism of John (water baptism) and not with the baptism of the Holy Spirit. So, when he spoke out boldly in the synagogue, Priscilla AND her husband Aquila heard him and THEY took him aside and explained the way of YHWH (about spiritual baptism) more accurately. It might be that after THEY took him aside, that Aquila instructed or taught Apollos more about the baptism of the Holy Spirit, while Priscilla sat quietly and listened. It could also be that Priscilla simply testified and shared her own experience of being baptized in the Holy Spirit, which is a testimony and not the same as usurping authority over a man to teach him what the Scriptures mean. It could also be that Priscilla was actually involved in teaching Apollos the doctrine of the baptism in the Holy Spirit (however, this would not have been permissible by Paul's teachings and other Scriptures), but she may have tried to do it anyway, even if done in direct disobedience to Paul's commandments. There is simply not enough details in this set of Scriptures to indicate what part Priscilla played in all this. But we can hypothesize this much: Paul speaks very highly of Priscilla and Aquila and Apollos on numerous occasions in the Scriptures. Earlier in chapter 18 of Acts we read where Paul actually lived with Priscilla and Aquila, and later sailed with them. It is highly unlikely that Paul would speak this way about Priscilla "if" she was disobedient to the things he taught, such as: that a woman was not to teach a man or attempt to usurp authority over a man. Therefore, logic alone would indicate that it is likely that Priscilla was instead: chaste, meek, submissive, discreet, a keeper of the home, good, obedient to her husband Aquila, in accordance with the other things Paul did teach women to do. Why would Paul have spoken so highly of Priscilla if she was similar to a modern day "Women's Liberation Movement" type of woman? Those women typically are headstrong, pushy, contentious, disrespectful, prideful and unyielding to men's positions of authority, desiring to teach men, and many of them long to usurp authority over men and usually reject everything the Bible teaches.   

Now I want to move on to some other New Testament verses, because I know that many people believe that much of the instruction given in the Old Testament was done away with when Yeshua came in the New Testament. (I personally do not believe Yeshua did away with His Father's teachings and instructions). So, moving along to the next set of verses in this study. Paul describes how a woman is to conduct herself in holiness at all times.

1Tim 2:9  In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with braided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;

1Tim 2:10  But (which becomes women professing godliness) with good works

1Tim 2:11  Let the woman learn (G3129) in silence (G2271) with all subjection. (G5292)

1Tim 2:12  But I suffer not a woman to teach, (G1321) nor to usurp authority over (G831) the man, but to be in silence. (G2271)

1Tim 2:13  For Adam was first formed, then Eve. 

1Tim 2:14  And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. (G3847)

I included the Strong's Greek # in parenthesis in the verses above, so I could list the Greek meanings and definitions to those words below.

Learn (G3129): to increase ones knowledge, be apprised

Silence (G2271): stillness, desist from bustle or language, quietness

Teach (G1321): to teach, to hold discourse with others in order to instruct them, deliver "didactic discourses"

Didactic: intended to instruct, morally instructive, inclined to teach or moralize excessively

Discourses: verbal expression in speech or writing; to narrate or discuss

Usurp authority over (G831): To "govern" one, to exercise "dominion" over one

Govern (H5148): to guide, transport, bestow, bring, lead, lead forth

Dominion (G2961): be lord of, have lordship over

Dominion (G2963): mastery, rulers

Dominion (G2964): to lord against, control, subjugate

Transgression (G3847): violation, breaking

So, regarding the above verses and definitions: I had to ask myself the following: Do woman (especially women who consider themselves to be pastors) “teach” (or narrate to or discuss toward) any men in a church setting, in order to “instruct” them? Of course they do.

Does a woman pastor “govern” (usurp authority over) any man in a church by guiding, bestowing upon, bringing or leading the men by instructing or teaching them? Yes, they do.

Can any woman stand behind a “pulpit” (which infers a level of authority by itself) or can she even stand up (without a pulpit) in front of a group that includes men (whether or not she is called a pastor or co-pastor) and share Scripture verses and then explain what they mean without having some measure of governance (or rule over) or instructing toward (or teaching) a man? 

She certainly could not be in compliance with the “be in silence” directive which clearly means to be in stillness, desist from language, and quietness, when she is preaching to or teaching any man. (This however does not state that women have to be totally silent in the church setting. See how women are used in many spiritual gifts such as prophesying, giving a word of knowledge, speaking in tongues, etc.. later in this study.) This "be in silence" instruction in the verses above appears to pertain to the subject at hand, or a woman attempting to teach or usurp authority over a man. 

Some people try to say that this only applied to Timothy's church or his time period, using the reasoning that the gentiles in this area of the world worshiped women goddesses and deities and then these same people try to reason that it does not apply to any other culture or time period. However, the apostle Paul refutes that argument in the very next two verses (2:13 and 2:14) where he takes it clear back to the creation in the garden speaking of the first man and first woman as he makes it perfectly clear that Adam was NOT deceived, but Eve was deceived and in the transgression.     

I listed the following verses from the next chapter of 1st Timothy (and also some from Titus) just to show that it is clear from Scripture (even from just the new testament) that "men" may have positions of leadership as bishops and deacons, but I can find no verses instructing women to have these same positions, or any other positions where a woman would have authority over a man or teach a man.

1Tim 3:1  This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desires a good work.

1Tim 3:2  A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behavior, given to hospitality, able to teach;

1Tim 3:3  Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous;

1Tim 3:4  One that rules well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity;

1Tim 3:5  (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)

1Tim 3:8  Likewise must the deacons be grave, not double-tongued, not given to much wine, not greedy of filthy lucre; 
1Tim 3:9  Holding the mystery of the faith in a pure conscience. 
1Tim 3:10  And let these also first be proved; then let them use the office of a deacon, being found blameless. 
1Tim 3:11  Even so must their wives be grave, not slanderers, sober, faithful in all things. 
1Tim 3:12  Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well. 
1Tim 3:13  For they that have used the office of a deacon well purchase to themselves a good degree, and great boldness in the faith which is in Christ Jesus. 

Tit 1:6  If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly. 
Tit 1:7  For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not self-willed, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre; 
Tit 1:8  But a lover of hospitality, a lover of good men, sober, just, holy, temperate; 
Tit 1:9  Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers. 

 

There is "one" verse in Rom 16:1 where the apostle Paul states: I commend unto you Phebe our sister, which is a servant (G1249) of the church which is at Cenchrea: 

 

The greek word for "servant" in the above verse is: "diakonos" and Strongs defines it as: Probably from διάκω diakō (obsolete, to run on errands; compare G1377); an attendant, that is, (generally) a waiter (at table or in other menial duties); specifically a Christian teacher

(technically a deacon or deaconess): - deacon, minister, servant.

So, while I realize that the Strong's definition does include the word "deaconess", it also conveys what a deacon or deaconess does, or what kinds of things they typically do, such as: "run on errands", "an attendant", "a waiter at a table or at other menial duties", "a servant". It in no way conveys anyone usurping authority over anyone else. And although one portion of the definition says: a Christian "teacher", it is also true that a woman is allowed to teach. She is just not allowed to teach a man or to teach with authority. (More on that shortly).

Paul does tell us another thing about Phebe in the next verse, that she has been a "succourer" of many. Rom 16:2 "That you receive her in the Lord, as becomes saints, and that you assist her in whatsoever business she has need of you: for she has been a succourer (G4368) of many, and of myself also." The Strong's definition for this word is: "prostatis" a patroness, that is, assistant. Here again giving added confirmation that Phebe was a servant, assistant, attendant, one who runs errands or a waitress, but not a haughty woman trying to usurp authority over men or one who instructs or teaches men in what the Word of YHWH means.

 

Please stay with me ONE more time as we finish this study. Click HERE to read the ending.
 

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